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The King James begins Philippians 2:7 with “But made himself of no reputation,” while the NASB reads, “but emptied himself.” Other versions follow these two. The Biblical Unitarian (BU hereafter) argument says of the Greek word kenos (G2756):
The Greek word that is in question is, kenos, which literally means, “to empty.” For more than a thousand years, from the church councils in the fourth century until the nineteenth century, the orthodox position of the Church was that Christ was fully God and fully man at the same time in one body. This doctrine is known as the “dual nature of Christ,”[1]
Actually the verb the KJV uses is kenoo (G2758) which is a derivative of kenos (G2756), an adjective. The verb is used in Romans 4:14 for faith being made void. It is used in 1Corinthians 1:17 of Christ being made of none effect. It has nothing to do with Christ emptying himself of his divinity. The BU argument already concedes that form in Philippians 2:6 does not mean divine character or essential essence. Form has to do with the outward shape or expression of things, such as figure, majesty and countenance. The Greek word kenoo (G2758) has to do with Christ making void his equality with the Father with a view to his outward form (morphe (G3444). In other words, he set aside his spirit body, with all its power and glory (omnipotence, omniscience and omnipresence) and took upon himself the physical body of a bondservant. He whom the universe could not contain was then contained in a human body. The Scriptures phrase it,
2 Corinthians 8:9 NASB For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sake he became poor, so that you through his poverty might become rich.
Concerning the dual nature of Christ, the Scriptures say in Hebrews 2:17, “…in all things it behooved him to be made like unto his brethren…” (KJV). What does that mean? It certainly does not mean Jesus had to have a sinful nature, for man was not created with a sinful nature. Adam was not enticed to sin. He was never tempted to sin. He did it deliberately. He was never deceived (1Timothy 2:14), but sinned knowing exactly what he was doing. All things in Hebrews 2:17 is pas (G3956) in the Greek and cannot always be taken literally, otherwise every last man, woman and child in Judea would have had to have come out to John to be baptized (Matthew 3:5). What Hebrews 2:17 means is that it was imperative that Jesus be made like unto (G3666 homoioo) his brethren. That is, he took human form, such as is stated in the second clause of Philippians 2:7 and suggested in Acts 14:11 where the people of Lystra thought Paul and Barnabas were gods in the likeness (G3666 homoioo) of men. Jesus lived as we do, having to labor to support himself and his family, submitting to the authority of the nation. He was hungry, had to sleep, took abuse, insults and experienced pain and death. He mourned over the death of friends, and had compassion on those who suffered, and there is even an indication that he experienced weakness through being sick. Nevertheless, this does not mean he had to have a sin nature like we do. His human nature was like that of Adam, before he sinned. Jesus is referred to as our second or last Adam in 1Corinthians 15:45, 47. Adam was a very powerful being. All that we are in this world, good or bad, in terms of strength, intelligence, wisdom and talents etc. must be derived from him. Adam is the spring from which we all flow. We cannot be anything or have anything that does not come from him. We have no more ability or talent to help our condition before God or save ourselves anymore than Adam had after he rebelled, until Christ came. Jesus is the last Adam and my way out of the death and darkness of the Adamitic race.
Of course, the BUs do not believe in the dual nature of Christ, because they consider him to be no more than a human being. They look upon the doctrine of the dual nature of Christ with some disdain,
Our experience in speaking to Christians all over the world confirms what Wren-Lewis stated: the average Christian does not feel that Christ “was made like his brothers in every way” (Heb. 2:17), but instead feels that Christ was able to do what he did because he was fundamentally different. We believe that the teaching of the dual nature is non-biblical and robs power from people who might otherwise seek to think and act like Christ. This artificially separates people from the Lord Jesus.[2] (emphasis mine)
It is precisely because Christ is not completely like us that we have power to overcome. He told the disciples that we can do nothing except we abide in him (John 15:4-6). The problem is that we physically dwell in our old man (Adam), and, in doing so, we bear the fruit of our old man. We need to keep abiding in Christ through faith. When we do, we shall bear the fruit of the new Man (Galatians 5:22-23). It is not in my power but in the power of his Spirit that I do well before God. I am not robbed of power to serve God because of believing in the dual nature of Christ. On the contrary, therein is my power. It is because he reached down to me, enabling me to partake of him, that I am able to overcome. In my old man, I am nothing and unable to please God. It is precisely because Jesus is both God and Man that I have a way to be saved. He is the Way (John 14:6) out of Adam and into a new creation (2Corinthians 5:17; Galatians 6:15; cp. John 3:3, 5). He is God, made man, and therein I am empowered t overcome.
[1] (http://biblicalunitarian.com/html) The Website of the Biblical Unitarians: “Verses that Trinitarians use to support the Trinity;” click to see the full list; then scroll to “The New Testament” and then to Philippians 2:6-8.
[2] (http://biblicalunitarian.com/html) The Website of the Biblical Unitarians: “Verses that Trinitarians use to support the Trinity;” click to see the full list; then scroll to “The New Testament” and then to Philippians 2:6-8.
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Smoodock's Blog 
2 responses to “Jesus Stripped Himself of his Glory!”
I note that all your quotes are from Paul…and NOT from the Doctrine of Christ. That Doctrine of Christ is the” WORD of GOD”. 2 John v 9 states that whosoever transgresseth and abides not in the ‘Doctrine of Christ’ hath NOT GOD.
Jesus was sent by GOD to SPEAK the WORDS of His Father. Jesus did not give up divinity..because He did not exist before Bethlehem. Mary was HIS MOTHER, …she was not divine; she was not there at the beginning…… and she was NOT a “proxy” mother. She was the WOMAN chosen by GOD HIMSELF to bare HIS SON. (And nor was Jesus a victim of Nicodemus’ bright ideas in John ch 3 v 4…ie that Jesus had to re-enter His Mother’s womb and be born again !!!! )
The trinity doctrine is blasphemy…and NO WHERE does it say Jesus existed before Bethlehem…..other than IN the MIND of God, and in prophecy. Argue all you wish…but Jesus had to be “MAN”…as He was – as “SON OF MAN” through Mary; .and ‘Son of GOD’ through God, His Father. If Jesus had the attributes of GOD BEFORE Calvary, then He could never have been infinite in the first place..because being eternal cannot be suspended…not even for 33 years – or it is not being’ everlasting’. Jesus had to be man to be tempted…as He was…and He had to die…as He did. Gods do NOT die !
John ch 1 v 1:- The WORD is of GOD…NOT JESUS…indeed, verses 1-13 ( (6-8 refer to John the Baptist)……BUT ALL other verses refer to GOD…NOT Jesus. Jesus enters at Bethlehem in verse 14…to do His Father’s will.. That was to speak the WORD of God. His Father. Deut ch 18 vs 15, 18 and 19. See John ch 17 vs 8 and 14 ” I have given them THY WORD”.
By the way, God says over and over that He ALONE is GOD..there is “none else” eg Isaiah ch 45.
(I will probably not see this website anymore…BUT you are welcome to challenge me using my email address..duly supplied. )
I will back up everything I have written here and expand on all parts ……if any wish to challenge this. And I will explain each verse of John ch 1 to which I have referred to here.
A question you might like to think about :- The trinity doctrine demands that God is 3 co-equal persons: Father, Son and Holy Spirit. But Jesus is the “begotten ” Son of God…and thus God existed before He bore/ produced/made/ created/formed — whatever —… His Son….. so who was God then?
There was NO Son then – so just 2 persons…and No Father figure. and that contradicts the trinity doctrine definition of 3 co-equal persons !.
You may wish to explain how the 3rd person ..came to Mary and she conceived…but the 1st person is the father. ( What would you say if your teenage daughter asked you to explain that? )
Understand John ch 1 and then you will realise you are all being led along the road to destruction…… by Satan and aided by Rome and its doctrine,..a ‘tradition of man’..as Jesus calls it……… and now by the ill informed churches.
Jer. ch 23 vs 1 and v 11..
Jesus did NOT strip Himself of His glory. As the FirstFruit after Calvary, Jesus was given :- ” all power in Heaven and on earth”; He was given His Divinity,,which would be EVERLASTING…(infinite) ; and given the right to take up His place at the right hand of GOD, His Father in Heaven…Further, He will fulfil Isaiah ch 9 v 6 when He will rule the coming world when David will be king and Jesus will be the ” mighty God” of that new world….and the “everlasting Father”….. NOT replacing God…but being “everlasting Father ” by nature (Isaiah ch 22 v 21 ) !! .
It is so sad that so many claim to speak for the “Doctrine of Christ” yet quote Paul and his gospel to (try) to do that ! ( Rom ch 2 v 16 or Rom ch 25 v 16.)
You quote Phil ch 2 v 6 ??? check John ch 5 v 19. etc ! Is that claiming equality ?
Thank you.
rodd
Greetings Rodd, and welcome. Thank you for reading my studies and for your comment.
By what authority do you reject Paul’s writings from the New Testament? You seem to accept John’s epistle as true (2John 1:9) but reject Paul as not the “doctrine of Christ”. Do you accept Peter’s epistles as true? If so, what do you think of 2Peter 3:15?
You claim that Jesus didn’t exist before Bethlehem, but you don’t support your statement with scripture. What would you do with Philippians 2:5-8 where it is claimed that prior to his becoming man the One who became Jesus was equal with the Father? Assuming you reject Paul’s writings as scripture, then what would you do with John 17:5 where Jesus asks the Father to glorify him with the glory he had with the Father before the world existed?
Concerning the Trinity Doctrine, I am not a supporter of this doctrine. God is not a Trinity. Trinity is a name that men have given to God in the 4th century AD, trying to explain the multiplicity they saw in the Godhead, as revealed in the scriptures. I believe it was wrong to do this. I believe Jesus is God, and the Father is God and they are one God. Beyond that, I cannot explain; neither will it try to invent words to explain it. The scriptures alone show God is One and a Multiplicity at the same time. I don’t try to figure this out, but I can defend it.
Concerning John 1:1-13 being about God (except for 6-8), if the Word is the Father, how can the Father be with the Father? The scripture says the Word was in the beginning **WITH** God (I assume you believe this is the Father). So, if the Word is God and is with God and only the Father is meant, how can the Father be **WITH** himself?
Concerning your desire to debate with me by email, that’s not going to happen. You made a **PUBLIC** comment to my website, and we shall debate here or nowhere. I am posting this, my reply, and I will await your response. If that doesn’t come, that is a scenario that you created, not me. I am simply responding in kind. I don’t mean to be unfriendly, but I do mean to be very direct about this matter. If you contacted me by email without a public comment, I would have replied to you by email, without a public announcement. Nevertheless, this is where it began, and this is where it will end.