Smoodock's Blog

There should be no question that John 1:4 continues to testify of the Word and who he is. At no point do these verses in John’s prologue refer to the Father except in his relation to the Word. All of the pronouns refer to the Word. It is important to see this, so I’ll quote the first four verses here,

John 1:1-4 EMTV  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.  (2)  he was in the beginning with God.  (3)  All things came to be through him, and without him nothing came to be which has come to be.  (4)  In him was life, and the life was the light of men.

If the Word is an inanimate object such as a plan, then Scripture says that eternal life does not come from God, but from no life at all (viz. a plan). If the Word is a plan then this Scripture says that life comes from a plan. The further we go with this idea, the more the Biblical Unitarian[1] (BU hereafter) argument departs from the word of God, and the more human reasoning must take place in order to keep the doctrine from sounding ridiculous. Life eternal can come only from God. The Scripture says very clearly that the Word was God (John 1:1). This would agree with John 1:4 which says “in him (the Word or God) was life.” When one denies this as fact, one has to redefine the clear wording of Scripture (viz. making him in v.4 refer to the Father) in order to keep supporting man’s reasoning. One needs to step back and ask if one is submitting to what Scripture says or causing Scripture to say what man says. May God have mercy upon us all and give us eyes to see.

At this point the BUs will often quote John 5:26 to show that it is the Father who gives life. They are quick to point out that he has empowered Jesus to give life, seeking to make Jesus subordinate to God.[2] This, of course, is not so but only appeared to be so for the sake of Jesus’ example for man to follow. However, concerning the authority issue in John 5:26, the BU argument is technically true, but it is merely a temporary issue. We need to keep things in context. John 5:26 is speaking of the time of Jesus’ humiliation (Philippians 2:6-8). John 1:1-4 is speaking of Jesus as the Word, before he became man, before he surrendered his glory (cp. John 17:5 and Philippians 2:6) in order to assume flesh (cp. John 1:14 and Philippians 2:7-8) and save mankind.

In John’s first letter we are given more information to help us understand what was written in the first chapter of his Gospel.

1 John 1:1-3 KJV  That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;  (2)  (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)  (3)  That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.

Notice that John wrote of the beginning of the Gospel, that is to say, the beginning of Christ’s ministry. John is not speaking of creation, because he testifies of “that which… we have heard, which our eyes have seen…” What did John hear, but the preaching of Jesus? What did John see, and what was John able to touch with his own hands? – the Word of Life! John claims ETERNAL LIFE was manifested before him and the other disciples. This ETERNAL LIFE was “with (pros G4314) the Father.” This is the same word used in John 1:1 for the Word being with God. It means with (at, near, by or toward) someone or something. Therefore, ETERNAL LIFE in 1John 1:2, is the Word of Life of 1John 1:1. The Word of Life – ETERNAL LIFE- was manifested before John and his eyes beheld him, and his hands touched him.

There is no question that these Scriptures in John’s Gospel and his first letter relate to one another. In him, that is, in the Word was life (John 1:4), and Life – the Word of Life – was made manifest (John 1:14, 1John 1:1) and John both saw him with his eyes and touched him with his hands.

One problem that is expressed by many who hold a low view of Christ is that either Jesus’ sacrifice was not needed or God simply wills that in this age only Jesus saves. In other words, those under the Old Covenant are saved by another means. Is Christ the Light or Eternal Life for David, Moses, Abraham and the prophets as well as for us? Or can it be proved that these and all the other people are saved by another means? What of those who did not believe, or did not hear of the God of the Jews, what happens to them?

It is easy to see how Adam has affected our entire race with corruption, since he is the reservoir from which we draw our human life. Nevertheless, in 1Corinthians 15 we are told that we have a second Adam. For the comparison to be a true parallel, logic demands that Jesus affects the entire human race as well. In Psalm 110 David calls the Messiah (Jesus) “Lord.” Why would David do this, if the Messiah did not already have authority over him? If Jesus was not already the Captain of David’s salvation, how could he be David’s Lord? Job stood on his faith saying that all his appointed time he would wait, knowing that his Redeemer lives.

Everyone had to wait for Jesus to die and resurrect, because logic demands that he be the first to rise from the dead. During the Passover, the Wave Sheaf Offering (Leviticus 23:10-14) had to be offered to God and accepted before anything else could be harvested in Israel. Likewise, Jesus had to be resurrected (1Corinthians 15:20-23) and ascend to heaven at the time of the Wave Sheaf Offering. He did so that he might be presented before the Father and be accepted as the equivalent Sacrifice (1Timothy 2:6) for the entire human race and thus become our Redeemer.

In Hebrews we are told Jesus tasted death for all of us and he took part in flesh and was tested just as we are and is not ashamed to call us brethren (Hebrews 2:9-15). Hebrews 11 lists many beloved saints of the Old Testament who died never receiving the promises, but looked for something better (Hebrews 11:13; cp. Hebrew 8:6). Jesus said that Abraham rejoiced to see his day  (John 8:56). Why would Abraham rejoice except that the ram caught in the thicket represented Christ’s sacrifice (Genesis 22:13), returning Isaac to his parents? Abraham testified that the LORD would provide a Sacrifice for himself (Genesis 22:8), that is, a Sacrifice that would be acceptable to him (God). Moreover, Abraham was told that it would be through him, specifically through the One who would descend from Abraham, that all the Gentiles would be blessed or saved (Galatians 3:8). Isaiah spoke of the suffering Servant in Isaiah 53, testifying that he was slain for our transgressions, and by his stripes we (the people of the Old Testament) were healed (Isaiah 53:3-5, 12).

Acts 10:42-43 claims that Jesus is the Judge of the living and the dead. If all the saints who lived under the Old Testament were judged by some other criteria, why would Christ also judge them? If there is one God over all, how can it be said that there is one Mediator over all (1Timothy 2:5-6), unless those who lived before Christ also have life though his sacrifice? It is clear in the New Testament that Jesus, as our High Priest, offered himself only once for all of us and for all time (Hebrews 9:28). Paul testified in Romans 5 that Adam had corrupted his whole race, but Jesus’ life and sacrifice is stronger than Adam’s death and sin. He is able not only to pay the whole debt but does it abundantly so. He is much more grace than is needed! Truly, Jesus alone is the Light that lights up every child of God coming to the Father (John 1:4; John 14:6), because he is the central figure of both the Old and New Testaments.

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[1] See the Biblical Unitarian website at: http://www.biblicalunitarian.com/

[2] It is not only the BUs who hold to this understanding. The Jehovah’s Witnesses, those of the Islamic faith and some independent believers support this belief, as well.

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