Smoodock's Blog

As one can see, the books of Revelation and Daniel often support one another in the things each says would occur. The problem is that the most vocal of our modern interpreters of these books would have the reader believe that nearly nothing is fulfilled to date, but all must be fulfilled at a presumed future  return of Jesus to this earth. Without any real evidence, most modern interpreters of prophecy would have us believe that a physical six foot man (Jesus) must come to earth, riding upon a physical cloud to a physical Jerusalem to reign on a physical throne, it the physical Most Holy Place in a newly rebuilt physical Temple, and this is supposed to be a very spiritual event!

Daniel claims to be a prophet of the end times (Daniel 12:9). However, if this study is accurate at all, we have seen that the Seventy Weeks Prophecy (see HERE) points to Jesus and the beginning of his ministry, the time and date of his death, his resurrection, his making a firm covenant with man and the rejection of that covenant with the persecution of his followers, thus sealing the fate of both Jerusalem and the Temple. If this account of the Seventy Weeks Prophecy is accurate, then the “end times” of which Daniel spoke were the times of Jesus’ and the apostles’ ministry. If this is so, then the books of Daniel and Revelation must be understood to reveal the times of Jesus’ ministry and that of the first century church.

It is commonly believed that the book of Revelation was written by the apostle John in the 90’s of the first century AD. If this is true, then an argument could be made for it being a prophecy for the “end” of something other than the Jewish nation and the Old Covenant, but ‘of what’ is the question, because the Bible never speaks about the end of time, the end of creation, or the end of the Gospel age. However, support can be found both within the book itself and among the writings of Paul that Revelation was written long before the period in which it is commonly believed to have been composed. Indeed support can even be found in Jesus’ words that the book of Revelation should be understood to be reflecting the first century AD prior to the Jewish war with Rome in 70 AD.

Paul wrote to the Corinthians that it was not profitable for him to boast about himself. So when he came to speak about visions, he boasted of the vision of another man (2Corinthians 12:1-2) rather than about himself (2Corinthians 12:5). Clearly, Paul was not speaking of himself in this part of his letter for he says, “I knew a man in Christ…” If Paul knew a man “in Christ” he must have been speaking of someone other than himself. Yet, many interpreters of the word of God believe Paul was boasting of his own visions. They do this without the support of scripture, for the word of God clearly says Paul “knew a man in Christ.”

Paul speaks of a vision that occurred fourteen years before his letter to Corinth. That is, about 14 years prior to Paul’s epistle the man had a vision. If Paul wrote the 2nd letter to the Corinthians in 57 or 58 AD, he could be referring the persecution of the Church under Herod Agrippa (cir. 41-44 AD). At that time James the brother of John was killed, but Peter escaped his hand (cir. 44 AD). John probably left Jerusalem prior to his brother’s death to insure his own safety. John says he was on the isle of Patmos for the sake of the Gospel, implying either the persecution of Agrippa or simply he was preaching in that vicinity.

Patmos is an island just off the coast of the province of Asia in the Aegean Sea. Paul, no doubt learned of the vision after Agrippa’s death and during the Jerusalem council (cir. 49 AD) when John was in Jerusalem. Little is known of John’s travels, because Luke records only the travels of Paul. Nevertheless, John and Paul met in Jerusalem cir. 49 AD, as is implied in Galatians 2:9, whereupon, no doubt John mentioned his vision (the book of Revelation). Moreover, the fact that Paul says so little about the vision implies that the Corinthians were very familiar with it, so Paul had no need to elaborate. The Apocalypse could have been written as early as 41-42 AD, but perhaps two or three years later.

Revelation 1-3 speaks of the churches in Asia, and, since Paul had not evangelized that vicinity that early, the believers there probably had  heard of the Gospel during pilgrimages to Jerusalem. However, it may also be that some of the Apostles were evangelizing that area, prior to Paul’s labors. If John was on the isle of Patmos, he may have been there laboring in the Gospel, and preaching in the synagogues to the Jews.

If the mention of “fourteen years” in 2Corinthians 12 is meant to tie this scripture to the persecution of the moderate Christians represented by the 12 Apostles in Acts 12 and their expulsion from Jerusalem, then we have support that Paul was referring to the Apostle, John, i.e. “man in Christ” who was “caught up to the third heaven” (2Corinthians 12:2). Paul went on to say that he knew of such a man who was “caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter” (2Corinthians 12:3-4). Then in verse-5 Paul claimed that he would boast in this man’s vision but not his own.

There is only one vision recorded in the New Covenant text that fits Paul’s description in 2Corinthians 12:1-5, and that is the Apocalypse. Indeed, John was “caught up to the third heaven (Revelation 4:1). Scripture does not reveal any other Apostle or any other figure in the New Testament who received such a vision in which he was “caught up” into paradise or the third heaven. John is the only one!

In the Gospel narratives Jesus also gave hints as to what period of time the book of Revelation refers. For example, Luke wrote of Jesus sending out the 70 disciples, and when they returned Jesus said that he beheld Satan fall from heaven (Luke 10:18). Revelation also records that Satan fell from heaven during a war between himself and Michael (Revelation 12:7-9). This must refer to the same period within the ministry of Jesus. For, how many times must Satan be cast out of heaven? If he was cast out once, by what authority would he be permitted to enter again? It seems to me that both of these scriptures refer to the same period, which is the preaching of the Gospel during the time of Christ

Notice, that the time of our salvation is coupled with the time of Satan’s expulsion from heaven and that his loss of authority signals that he had only a short time left (Revelation 12:10-12). This is a further indication that the time of this war was during Jesus’ earthly ministry and just prior to his crucifixion.

At the very beginning of his ministry Jesus gave us another hint about the time, about which the book of Revelation is concerned . In Mark 3:27 Jesus said it was not possible to enter a strong man’s house and spoil his goods unless one first bound the strong man. Jesus was speaking with the Pharisees who had accused him of being Satan’s servant. Jesus referred to the kingdom of Satan as a house of a strong man (Mark 3:23-27). If we couple this scripture with Revelation 20:1-2, we are able to see that Satan must be bound in order for the Gospel to go to the world, especially the gentiles. Only if Satan is bound could his “house” and “goods” be spoiled.

This understanding does not fit with today’s interpretation of Revelation. How could it? But if true, we must take a hard look at what we have assumed was speaking about a future coming of Jesus. The New Covenant writers all assume Jesus was about to return in that generation, and they pointed to his judgment of their enemies, and that took place in 70 AD. By What authority do we look for another return of Christ?