In John 14:28 Jesus tells his disciples that his Father, who is God, is greater than he (Jesus). This is one of those “Duh!” occurrences in Scripture. Some folks, who hold Jesus to a low Christology, try pointing to this Scripture as a kind of one-liner to establish the doctrine that Jesus is not God. Yet, they don’t seem to realize that their understanding does not fit the context. Try to put yourself in the place of one of the disciples and Jesus comes into the room and says: “Okay, folks, I just want to tell you that God is greater than I am!” Should you be surprised? If Jesus is only a man, is this supposed to be some great revelation?
The mere idea that Jesus makes this statement should show us that Jesus does not claim to be a mere man. The problem then arises—how should we understand his remark? Is he saying that he is a divine being (as some believe John 1:1 is saying) but a lesser god that the Father? If Jesus is saying this, isn’t he advocating polytheism? Wouldn’t his statement, if taken this way, go radically against the Jewish idea that God is One and there is no other god with him? If Jesus did have this in mind, certainly there would be something in the New Testament that would make this clear, especially in the debates he had with the local Jewish authorities. Nevertheless, we find nothing to support the idea that Jesus believes himself to be a demigod, or that his followers thought so. So, if his statement: “My Father is greater than I!” cannot be taken that Jesus admits to be a mere man or that he claims to be a demigod, what does his remark mean?
As I said in earlier blogs on the subject of Christology, context is very important, if not the single most important, as a consideration to understand the meaning of Scripture. Notice that Jesus also told his disciples that he was going away but would return to them. Moreover, they should rejoice in this, if they really loved him. What did he mean by he was going away and then return? Obviously, it had to do with his death and resurrection. However, I believe he also had his ascension into heaven and his glorification in mind as well, because in John 14:26 he refers to the Comforter who would come to them and teach them all things. Notice that Jesus says here that the Father would send the Comforter (Holy Spirit) in Jesus name. In John 14:16 Jesus says he will pray to the Father and the Comforter will be sent, but in John 15:26 Jesus says he will send the Comforter from the Father, which may be just another way of saying he will pray to the Father and the Comforter will be sent. Then in John 16:7 Jesus tells the disciples that it is necessary for him to leave before the Comforter could come to them, but when Jesus leaves, he will send the Comforter to them. Finally, in John 14:17 Jesus says that the Spirit of Truth (read Comforter) dwells with the disciples and shall be in them.
What conclusion may we draw from this? If we consider John 17:5, “And now Father, glorify Me with Yourself with the glory which I had with You before the world was;” and John 14:23, “If a man loves Me, he will keep My Word. And My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him;” knowing this should enable us to see that the Comforter is the presence of God within us, and the Comforter is both the Spirits of the Father and the glorified Jesus together. In other words, the Holy Spirit or the Comforter is not the Spirit of the Father or the Spirit of the Son, but the Spirits of both together. Our God is One. Does this fit the context of John 14? Could the apostles rejoice in this idea, knowing Jesus would no longer be physically present with them, but would abide within each of them through his Spirit and the Spirit of the Father (cp. John 17:23)?
If all this is so, how, then, is the Father greater than Jesus? It may be taken one of two ways and fit the context. First, it can mean that Jesus was not at that time glorified (cp. John 17:5), but the Father was as he had always been, and, therefore, the Father’s present condition was greater than the present condition of Jesus (cp. Philippians 2:6-7). Secondly, there may be a condition of authority within the Godhead. Genesis 1:2, for example, implies the presence of at least two in the phrase the Spirit of God. Later in the chapter the LORD says, and then the LORD does or makes or brings forth. Is there an authority hierarchy implied in one who initiates and one who applies what is initiated? Colossians 1:15-16 shows us that all things were created through the One who became Jesus. This idea is found in the family, which seems to be what is meant in Genesis 1:26-27 where man was created in the image of God. The husband brings his family into the world through his wife. I don’t mean to imply that God is male and female; God is asexual. However, the Scriptures conclude that the male and female together in humanity are the single image of God. Is there a hierarchy of authority between a husband and a wife? Some think so, and some do not. The point is, if there is it is pretty much in name only, for the marriages that are strongest seem to be those where the husband and wife are in mutual submission to one another. So it is with Jesus and the Father. Jesus always does the Father’s will, but the Father does nothing without Jesus. Jesus prays to the Father, but the Father never says no, but always does as Jesus asks—where is the idea of one having more authority than the other here? If it exists, it is in name only. They dwell in mutual submission to one another. Our God is One.
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