Both Matthew and Mark begin their record of Jesus’ ministry immediately after his forty day bout with Satan and also after John was put in prison (Matthew 4:12; Mark 1:14). Luke, however, records several weeks of Jesus’ ministry before coming to events that occurred after John’s imprisonment (Luke 7:1-10; cf. John 3:22-23; 4:1, 46-53). Several Sabbaths are mentioned between Luke 4:14 (after Jesus’ temptations but before John’s imprisonment) and Luke 7:1 (the beginning of events occurring after John’s imprisonment in Luke’s Gospel). What can be said of these things?
I believe a case can be made that the events covered by Luke before healing the centurion’s servant in Luke 7:1-10 (i.e. Luke 4:14 to Luke 6:49) occur not only before John’s imprisonment, but highlight Jesus’ 40 day period mentioned in all three Synoptics (Matthew 4:1-11; Mark 1:12-13; Luke 4:1-13). In other words Matthew 4:1-11 & Luke 4:1-13 are the skeleton upon which the flesh of Luke 4:14 to 6:49 can be placed! How was Jesus really tempted? Luke tells us immediately following his outline. Where did the temptations take place? The Scriptures tells us in the wilderness, but does this mean the desert regions of Judea? I hardly think so. Notice that the fourth Gospel says John confessed who Jesus was, but he didn’t know him until he was given a sign from heaven (John 1:29-34). On the day following this, John told two of his disciples Jesus was the Messiah, and they left John to follow Jesus (John 1:35-39). Immediately, three others are called to follow Jesus (John 1:40-51). On the next day, the third day after John’s meeting with Jesus (John 2:1), Jesus and his disciples attended a wedding in Galilee. The text doesn’t allow 40 days in the wilderness prior to Jesus coming into Galilee after his baptism.
Consider the fact that people who don’t know God (i.e. people considered to be in spiritual Babylon) are considered a wilderness (Ezekiel 20:34-35), and this is contrasted with the wilderness into which Israel was taken when they left Egypt (Ezekiel 20:36). In this wilderness God intends to plead with his people a second time (Ezekiel 20:36; Micah 6:2; cf. Luke 4:1-13). Thus, the wilderness into which the Lord was led by the Spirit (Luke 4:1) doesn’t indicate a region within Palestine but the spiritual condition of his people—a dry and thirsty people (cf. Ezekiel 19:13; 20:35).
With this wilderness as his court, Jesus would plead with his people (Ezekiel 20:36; Jeremiah 2:8-9) and the sense should be taken in legal terms. Both Matthew and Luke follow the Septuagint (the Greek Old Testament) and have Jesus contending with the Devil (slanderer), but Mark has him contending with Satan or adversary (the accuser), following the Hebrew text. Satan or accuser is more fitting for the context of Jesus pleading (legally) over his people’s spiritual condition. Moreover, although Jesus pleads with his people, his people (or at least some of them) accuse or plead against (i.e. playing the part of Satan) him:
“Appoint an evil one over him (over Jesus), an accuser (Satan) to stand at his right hand, That he may be judged and found guilty, that his plea may be in vain.” (Psalm 109:6-7; parenthesis mine)[1]
When Jesus warned that the bread of the Lord would go to the gentiles rather than his people, if the Jews didn’t repent (Luke 4:3-4; 25-27), they tried to destroy him by casting him head first off a cliff (Luke 4:29). When Jesus healed a man who had a withered right hand on the Sabbath day (Luke 6:6-10), the scribes and Pharisees, who had set a trap for him (Luke 6:6), were filled with madness and gathered themselves with the Herodians in an effort to destroy him (Luke 6:11; Mark 3:6; cf. Luke 4:5-8 and Psalm 2:1-2). Again, when Jesus cast out the evil spirits from the people and healed all their diseases (Luke 6:18-19; cf. Matthew 12:22-24; Mark 3:7-11, 20-22; cf. Luke 4:9-12), the scribes and Pharisees accused Jesus of using the power of evil to destroy evil, and demanded a sign (Matthew 12:38-39)—which had to be a sign of their own choosing, because Jesus was already showing many signs and wonders, but he was accused of doing it all through the power of the evil one. Therefore, they sought a sign—one of their own choosing (“change these stones into bread” or “cast yourself down from this pinnacle”), tempting him (Luke 4:12).
Thus, it seems clear that not only did Jesus plead with a wilderness of (spiritually thirsty) people (Ezekiel 20:35; Luke 4:1), but the rulers of the people—the hills and mountains of Luke 3:5—also tried Jesus (if you are the Son of God… cf. Psalm 109:6-7; Luke 4:3) and demanded him to do whatever they said—give us bread (whatever we want, and when we want it), worship us (let us command you), cast yourself down…, i.e. force God to do what he promised but according to our will, naming it and claiming it.
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[1] NAB – revised edition
Smoodock's Blog 
14 responses to “Led Into the Wilderness”
Having recently written about Jesus’ baptism in a paraphrased, novelized form, I did notice some details that I built upon.
The gospels seem to have flexibility at some points about the chronological order of events. The fourth gospel only speaks of Jesus’ baptism through the mouth of John the baptizer, and I think it’s important to note that he speaks of it in *past tense*.
I found that for purposes of my story, John 1:29 happens at the exact time when Jesus was *returning* from the wilderness to his previous encampment, returning at that moment from his 40 day absence after having been baptized 40 days previously.
In my narrative, two of John’s disciples had been aware of Jesus’ absence all those weeks that followed his dramatic baptism. They and John were all a little startled to see Jesus just walking by after his unexplained absence.
Therefore, their remarks, “Where are you staying?” could actually be similar to as if they had said, “Where have you been all this time?”
They followed him from that point.
Right now I’m working on John’s arrest.
Matthew and Mark are the only two actually appearing to place the baptism into the order of events. Luke appears to present it in his narrative as a commentary, basically saying that it happened at some point.
I’m a little disconcerted with what appears to me to be an allegorization of the wilderness in your blog. Am I incorrect about this?
One of the best things I’ve ever heard about hermeneutical rules of interpretation is to never allegorize unless the context instructs the reader to allegorize.
Greetings, Clifford. Please note that I made the typo correction you noted in you second comment, and I deleted that comment.
We agree that there is some flexibility in the chronological order of events in the Gospels. Some interpretation is needed to say which came first and what the time difference might be. Having said this, I’m not sure we could place 40 days before John 1:29. I believe this is implied if we compare John 1:26-27 and John 1:29-32. In the first set of verses John tells those he is with that there is one who stands among them that they don’t know. It doesn’t appear that John knows either, because he doesn’t point him out. Yet, the very “next day” John does point Jesus out to those who are with him, and John admits to his own surprise that he didn’t know Jesus, and pointed to the sign given him by God which John was able to use to identify Jesus.
One could interpret this away and conclude Jesus was in the wilderness being tempted, but I am unwilling to do that. John gives us a ‘day’ count for a reason (in my opinion), which seems to lose all significance, unless John 1:29 is the day of Jesus’ baptism. John’s disciples ask where Jesus is staying, because it is more than a day’s walk back to Galilee from Bethabara.
Concerning Luke, I don’t think I can agree with your understanding. Luke 4:1 says that Jesus, being full of the Holy Spirit, returned from the Jordan… Where did he return to? John has him returning to Galilee within two days, and spent the third day at a ‘wedding’. Luke 4:1 says that when Jesus returned, the Spirit led or drove him into the wilderness. There doesn’t seem to be room for a literal wilderness. I’ve tried to find a block of time whereby Jesus was in a literal wilderness and tempted, but it simply isn’t there. At least I can’t find one.
Lord bless you Clifford in what you write about him in your book.
Just for clarity of my proposition…
John 1
24 (Now they had been sent from the Pharisees.) 25 They asked him, “Then why are you baptizing, if you are neither the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?” 26 John answered them, “I baptize with water, but among you stands one you do not know, 27 even he who comes after me, the strap of whose sandal I am not worthy to untie.” 28 These things took place in Bethany across the Jordan, where John was baptizing.
[The above was said after the baptism but during Jesus’ absence to the wilderness. John did not know the whereabouts of Jesus but knew he was around somewhere. The day after this conversation, the following verses occurred, in my scenario.]
29 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world! 30 This is he of whom I said [past tense], ‘After me comes a man who ranks before me, because he was before me.’ 31 I myself did not know him [past tense – could be 40 days past], but for this purpose I came baptizing with water, that he might be revealed to Israel.” 32 And John bore witness: “I saw [past tense] the Spirit descend from heaven like a dove, and it remained [past tense] on him. 33 I myself did not know him [past tense], but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is he who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’ 34 And I have seen and have borne witness that this is the Son of God.”
[The following days, Jesus commenced his ministry, calling disciples and going to the Galilee.]
So, I don’t see what the problem is, although I am not going to be dogmatic about it. It seems to harmonize to my mind.
Thanks!
Greetings Clifford, don’t know if it is a typo or a translation of which I am unaware, but for verse-28 what I have is Bethabara, not Bethany. As we agreed in previous exchange, it is difficult to be dogmatic about chronology on some things, because the Gospel narratives require some interpretation to put things in chronological order.
For clarity: I believe all that comes before John 1:29a: “The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him” occurred before Jesus’ baptism. Notice that the writer of the fourth Gospel has Jesus coming to John. The Synoptics have Jesus and John meeting only once. Neither does the fourth Gospel have them meet again, unless John 1:29 is presumed to be a second meeting, and the first and more important meeting goes unrecorded. Why would the writer of the fourth Gospel record Jesus and John meeting a second time, but record nothing of what was said, and completely ignore their first meeting?
I have John 1:29b “…and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world” occurring immediately after Jesus’ baptism. This seems to agree with Luke 4:1 which has Jesus return, presumably to Galilee (which would agree with John), and after returning there, Jesus was led or driven into the **wilderness** by the Spirit.
Lord bless you, Clifford.
Per your question, Eddie, I’m using the ESV.
The thrust of my novel is to suggest that the tradition that John wrote the fourth gospel is impossible, based on the contents of the book itself. My novel, if by God’s grace I am able to complete it, provides the scenario pointing to the actual author.
My theory has the writer of the gospel relating only what he personally witnessed, which is why it’s so different from the other three.
So if he didn’t actually see Jesus’ baptism but heard John speaking of it later, that would account for only the second meeting of Jesus and John having been recorded.
The writer of John’s gospel presents a compilation of the notes which he took during his time with Jesus, which also explains the absence of much of what the other three present. Apparently the author spent more time with Jesus during festivals. I also maintain he was witness to the trials because of who he was and also the Cross, from which the Twelve had fled, according to prophecy.
As an aside, Peter, James, and John witnessed the transfiguration. So if of the three, only one wrote a gospel, why was his gospel the only one lacking a reference to the transfiguration? Haha.
I hope I have not sidetracked your blog with my comments.
God bless you too, Eddie!