Many of the commentaries that I have place Matthew 25:31 and following at the end of time, or the end of the Gospel age. Some don’t even have Christians participating in this judgment, because they had been removed from the earth in the previous age. Yet, nothing like this appears in the plain reading of the scripture. Nothing is said about the end of time. That has to be brought to the table by the person interpreting the scripture. In other words, it is a doctrine of men, because it cannot be found in the scriptures. Neither could the end of the Gospel age be a proper interpretation, because no such thing is ever mentioned in scripture (cf. Daniel 2:44). It, too, is a doctrine of men. What does the scripture actually say?
Jesus told his Apostles that he would come with his angels and sit on the throne of his glory. At that time all nations would be brought before him, and he would separate them as a shepherd divides the sheep from the goats—the sheep to the right and the goats to the left. To those on the right Jesus says, “come you blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world” (Matthew 25:31-34; emphasis mine).
That’s quite a statement that God had the Kingdom prepared “from the foundation of the world.”[1] Those at Jesus’ right were to inherit that Kingdom, and according to most commentary scholars, immediately upon the realization of God’s plan, all things come to an end—sort’a, kind’a like “…and they lived happily ever after!” End of story. Well, I don’t think the scriptures do that kind of thing.
Notice what Paul says in his letter to the Ephesians:
Ephesians 1:4-10 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: (5) Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, (6) To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved. (7) In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace; (8) Wherein he hath abounded toward us in all wisdom and prudence; (9) Having made known unto us the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure which he hath purposed in himself: (10) That in the dispensation of the fullness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him. (emphasis mine)
God’s plan of salvation incorporated Paul’s readers even before the foundation of the world (verse-4), and he made known unto them the mystery of his will (verse-9). Why did he make this known to them? So that, “in the dispensation of the fullness of time he might gather together in one all things in Christ.” In other words, he made known the mystery of his will in order that the Gospel might be preached to the world in an effort to “gather together in one all things in Christ.”
Instead of time coming to an end at Matthew 25:31 and following, things were just getting started. Instead of the Gospel age coming to an end, we have Matthew 25:31 establishing the Gospel age, which, by the way never ends. We have inherited a Kingdom that cannot be moved (Hebrews 12:28). It doesn’t end here; it begins here. The Apostles asked about the end of the age (Matthew 24:3), well that is where we begin. The Gospel age was initiated at Pentecost, but it was established in 70 AD at the end of the age—the end of the Old Covenant.
Paul tells us that God’s plan to gather all things in Christ began to occur in “the dispensation of the fullness of times” (Ephesians 1:10, see above). Earlier Paul told the Galatians that “in the fullness of time” God sent his Son, born of a woman, made under the Law (Galatians 4:4). Moreover, it is claimed by the writer of Hebrews that Jesus had come and spoke to us in the last days (Hebrews 1:2). So, the last days, i.e. when Jesus initiated the Gospel, were also called the fullness of time.
Therefore, those who inherit the Kingdom (Matthew 25:34), inherit a Kingdom that cannot be moved (Hebrews 12:28). That is, it cannot be destroyed, nor does it end (cf. Daniel 2:44). Moreover, this same Kingdom had been prepared for the heirs from the foundation of the world, and the heirs had been incorporated into God’s plan from before the foundation of the world, and that in order to bring salvation to the world by preaching the Gospel (Ephesians 1:10). In other words, Matthew 25:31 and following is the beginning of the Gospel age.
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[1] The statement “from the foundation of the world” refers to the time of Adam’s rebellion. The phrase in the Greek is repeated elsewhere in the New Testament eleven times, always translated “foundation of the world” except at Hebrews 11:11. I have a study about this called The Overthrow of the World, if anyone cares to read it.
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9 responses to “In The Fullness of Time”
The Overthrow of the World I believe I am able to prove my argument by showing how its related word, kataballo (G2598), is translated in the New Testament. Katabole (G2602),[1] which appears *twelve times* in the New Testament, is the noun, while kataballo (G2598), appearing three times, is the verb.
Strong’s has 11 times, and in your list of verses there is only 11. 😁 What you say seems to make sense.
Greetings Jerry, thanks for reading and for your correction. I appreciate it, when I find an error in what I write. I want my studies to be the best they can be, considering my limited abilities. Lord bless you in your studies.
Hi Eddie,
Agree with you on the majority of this post, maybe with a change in your title to “The Fullness of Times” (plural) if you are concentrating on Ephesians 1:10 specifically.
Truth: “Nothing is said about the end of time”. Exactly, not even in Rev. 10:6, when it says “that there should be DELAY no longer” – not “…time no longer”.
Truth: “…those who inherit the Kingdom (Matthew 25:34) inherit a Kingdom that cannot be moved (Hebrews 12:28)…it cannot be destroyed, nor does it end (cf. Daniel 2:44).” Exactly, with the additional fact that this “endless” Kingdom seems to have also been in existence back in Old Covenant days, as testified by the Psalmist in several places such as…
#1) Ps. 45:6 – “Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the scepter of thy kingdom is a right scepter.”
#2) More proof of the timeless, perpetual quality of God’s kingdom, as well as the enduring, on-going future of the planet He made is found in Ps. 93:1-2 – “The Lord reigneth, he is clothed with majesty; the Lord is clothed with strength, wherewith he has girded himself: the world also is established, that it cannot be moved. Thy throne is established of old: thou art from everlasting.”
#3) And another one showing the existence and the omnipresence of God’s kingdom during the Old Covenant in Ps. 1-3:19 – “The Lord hath prepared his throne in the heavens, and his kingdom ruleth over all.”
It was “the fullness of TIMES” (plural) after which Ephesians 1:10 predicted the gathering together into one for those in Christ who were at that moment both dwelling in heaven as well as on the earth. Those “in heaven” that were in Christ would have to be the spirits of the OT saints from creation until then (because no one had bodily ascended to heaven yet). It would include as well any in Christ who were still “on earth” as bodily-resurrected saints at that time, or those who would die in Christ before AD 70. All of these were gathered into one at the return of Christ when all the righteous received their inheritance at the end of those “times”.
Here is the point I part company with your post, Eddie, when you state that there is no end to the Gospel Age because there is no end to God’s Kingdom, as in Daniel 2:44 (which verse is true). The “Age” and the “Kingdom” are not the same thing, however. There can be an end to a particular Age without having an end to God’s kingdom. That’s why I brought out the verse examples above from the Psalms that indicate God’s Kingdom was also existing in OC days. God’s kingdom is not confined to a particular epoch and absent from others. It may be manifested more openly and in different ways at certain times, but there has never been a time or Age it has not existed.
I read of a MINIMUM of AT LEAST FIVE AGES that scripture spells out. There are at least TWO AGES or TIMES before the New Covenant was initiated, as found in Colossians 1:25. “Even the mystery which has been hid from AGES” (plural) “and from generations, but NOW” (with the revelation of the New Covenant) “is made manifest to his saints.”
Paul also mentioned “the TIMES of this ignorance” (plural) of Gentile idol worship that had passed before God “NOW commandeth all men everywhere to repent.” The urgency for repentance then was because God was “about to judge the habitable world in righteousness” at the day of His AD 70 return (Acts 17:30-31) when the unshaken kingdom under the New Covenant would be firmly established without a rival.
A couple other verses with this same theme of at least two ages before the New Covenant Age are I Cor. 10:11 (ESV): “Now these things happened to them as an example, but they were written down for our instruction, on whom the end of THE AGES has come.” Likewise Hebrews 9:26 (ESV): “For then he would have had to suffer repeatedly since the foundation of the world. But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of THE AGES to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.”
All these verses above show us PLURAL AGES before the New Covenant Age was established.
We know that Paul in Ephesians 1:21 made a clear distinction between the end of the Old Covenant Age and “the COMING ONE” that was soon to arrive. But even AFTER that coming New Covenant Age was fully established, Paul also predicted at least ANOTHER AGE to follow that NC Age. Ephesians 2:6-7 says “And hath raised us up together and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus. That in the AGES TO COME” (plural – the NC Age and one following it) “he might show the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness towards us through Christ Jesus.”
Paul also made mention of AT LEAST THREE AGES with the church in place and operating. Ephesians 3:21 says “Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout ALL AGES” (has to be more than two ages for the church, or Paul would have said “BOTH ages”) “world without end.” The way this verse is phrased, it sounds as if there are at least TWO AGES following the establishment of the New Covenant Age.
There can be an end to an age without having an end of planetary existence, or an end to God’s kingdom. Even the two covenants mentioned in Gal. 4:24 do not limit the number of Ages that God divides human history into.
Altogether, this adds up to a minimum of at least FIVE ages total – perhaps more – that are laid out by Paul. This gives me grounds for saying that Christ will stage another future judgment and resurrection to close out the New Covenant Age before His glorified saints enter another age beyond that one, according to Paul’s repeated mention of multiple ages..
Greetings Patricia, and thank you for reading and for your very interesting comment.
Has the Lord always ruled? Yes, we do agree on this idea. However, in what sense does the scripture tell us that his rule **begins** on earth in Daniel 2:44, because there it does say:
I suggest that God enforced his rule by causing one nation to judge another for the sins they committed and then judged that nation with yet another nation etc. So, he ruled, but not with our permission. Beginning with the Gospel, God set up a Kingdom that voluntarily submits to his authority, and it is this Kingdom, not kingdoms like the physical Kingdom of Israel that performs his will voluntarily and shall never be destroyed.
You mention 1Corinthians 10:11 above, and there Paul tells us that his generation has reached the “ends of the ages”. In what sense should we understand the **ends** (plural) of the **ages** (plural)? How many **ends** are there? If more than one, isn’t that contradictory, if not anticlimactic? I believe the problem is this. We in our modern vernacular are often very precise and seek to impose our way of speaking upon first century believers. They knew what Paul was saying, I hesitate to say that we do—when reading literally. For example, we often claim to express the importance of an event: “Everyone will be there!” Is that literally true? No, but we know what the speaker means. The question is, a thousand years from now, would someone in that generation understand what we mean by that expression? How about “strike one” in baseball? That’s a miss, not a strike!
The Bible is full of literary figures of speech. For example, the scripture tells us that “all Judea” came out to John’s baptism and were baptized (Matthew 3:5-6). Is that true? No, not literally true, but it does express the importance of John’s ministry. The literary tool is called ‘hyperbole’ which is an exaggeration of the facts to express the importance of the event. The figure of speech operative in 1Corinthians 10:11 is heterosis, and it is used in a number of ways in the Bible, but for our use it concerns putting the plural for the singular. An example might be Matthew 24:65 where the high priest rent his clothes when actually only his official robe is meant. Another would be Hebrews 9:23 where it speaks of “better sacrifices” (plural), when the single sacrifice of Christ is meant.
Heterosis is at work elsewhere, too, when the plural of age is used, as it pertains to the future. Logic, itself, demands this to be so, because what Jesus has done cannot be improved upon. His sacrifice stands forever. I think it is telling, that the Age of the Messiah, or the Gospel Age (or New Covenant Age), was both described and predicted in the Old Covenant Age. Yet, if there are **ages** plural to come, not one word is given in scripture to tell us, the believers in Christ, what such ages are supposed to be like or what God intends to do in those ages. Nevertheless, the scriptures tells us that God will not do anything without informing his servants (Amos 3:7).
I know this flies in the face of the clear plural statement, but the use of the plural is all you have to support your argument that there are five ages, and these must be understood as literal statements. Yet, we both know that **literal** is not always true, and taking things **spiritually** is the true sense. Clearly, the Bible uses many different literary devises in order to express what it claims to be true, and we need to understand those devices, if we are going to understand the scripture as it is meant to be understood.
Lord bless you, Patricia, as you ponder these things, and thank you, once more, for reading my studies and for your comment.
Greetings Eddie. Just want to run something past you.
The mystery of God was that He was uniting Jews and Gentiles
Eph 3:3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words,
Eph 3:6 That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:
According to John, this mystery would be finished at the sound of the 7th angel, trumpet.
Rev 10:7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.
The 7th angel sounds at the falling of the city…
Rev 11:13 And the same hour was there a great earthquake, and the tenth part of the city fell, and in the earthquake were slain of men seven thousand: and the remnant were affrighted, and gave glory to the God of heaven.
Rev 11:14 The second woe is past; and, behold, the third woe cometh quickly.
Rev 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
Can this fulfill the “fulness of the gentiles” of Rom 11:25? The only other place that speaks of this fulness of gentiles is …
Luk 21:24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.
It is when Jesus is giving the disciples signs that would precede the destruction of the temple.
Luk 21:5 And as some spake of the temple, how it was adorned with goodly stones and gifts, he said,
Luk 21:6 As for these things which ye behold, the days will come, in the
which there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.
Luk 21:7 And they asked him, saying, Master, but when shall these things be? and what sign will there be when these things shall come to pass?
Luk 21:20 And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
The fulness of the gentiles was accomplished at the end of the old covenant economy, upon the destruction of the temple and the Mosaic law. Both had existed to keep separation between the two (Jew and Gentile), who had been made one in Christ Jesus.
Am I tracking?
My best to you,
Bill