Understanding when the Apocalypse (the Book of Revelation) was written is very, very critical to one’s eschatology. After all, if it was written by John, late in the first century AD, as most scholars believe today, then there was no event at that time (90-100 AD) that would provide the framework into which we could place this prophecy. Therefore, we must look for its fulfillment after the first century AD. On the other hand, if the Book of Revelation was written earlier in the first century AD, during the lives of the Apostles, Peter and Paul, then this prophecy would fit very well within the framework of the Lord’s judgment upon Jerusalem cir. 66 – 70 AD!
I would have to say that anyone who studies the Apocalypse, but doesn’t take John’s prologue seriously, gets off to a terrible start and sets himself up for wrong conclusions to say the least and a false prophecy to be more blunt. Once one travels down the false path in a study, especially concerning this book, his study is doomed to fail, and its meaning could never resemble anything close to the truth. Understanding Revelation 1:1-3 is that critical! Notice:
A Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to Him to declare to His servants things which must shortly come to pass. And He signified it by sending His angel to His servant John, who bore record of the Word of God and of the testimony of Jesus Christ and of all the things that he saw. Blessed is the one who reads and hears the Words of this prophecy, and the ones keeping the things written in it, for the time is near. (Revelation 1:1-3 MKJV; emphasis mine)
These three verses set a context for eminence for the rest of the book. John tells us that its fulfillment is near. The Bible student who ignores these verses or interprets the clear language away, simply throws the very key to the book away, and in doing so, he may just as well stop right where he is, because to go further would be a waste of his and his readers / listeners time.
Some well meaning believers might say: “But, John couldn’t be saying the book’s fulfillment was near, because Jesus said that even he didn’t know when his coming might be” (Mark 13:32). This, however, is a false conclusion based upon a false premise. First, we need to understand that Jesus claimed that the only one who knew “the day and the hour” of his (i.e. Jesus’) coming was the Father. Notice that Revelation 1:1 clearly states that God (i.e. the Father), who knew the day and the hour, gave the “Revelation of Jesus Christ” to Jesus to give to his servant John. So, this isn’t John’s idea, it is the Father’s idea. And, the Father knew both the day and the hour (Mark 13:32). Therefore, there is no basis whatsoever to the idea that “John couldn’t be claiming Jesus’ coming was near in the first century AD, because Jesus didn’t know.” John doesn’t say this by his own authority. He is merely recording what Jesus gave to him from the Father.
Therefore, both the dating of the Apocalypse and its fulfillment must fall within the context of John’s prologue (Revelation 1:1-3)! The idea of imminence is very real, because John records not his own hope or desire, but the words of God, our Father (Revelation 1:1), who knew both the day and the hour of Jesus Coming (Matthew 24:36; Mark 13:32), and he said that these things (i.e. the ‘Coming of Jesus’ and the events that follow) must shortly come to pass. There isn’t much wiggle room here, and there certainly isn’t room to fit a 2000 year eschatology into the framework of John’s prologue.
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