This will by my final offering in this study series on gay marriages. If the Bible condemns gay marriages, it doesn’t do so clearly. In previous studies, I’ve shown that many scriptures that are used to condemn homosexuality and gay marriages are taken out of context. Even what the Law judges as an abomination is sometimes viewed differently, prior to the coming of the Law. It appears that, once Israel became a nation, especially a nation brought into existence in order to unveil God to the nations/gentiles, certain practices, which were treated differently, perhaps, even being approved in normal society, became abominations, sometimes capital crimes, under the Law of Moses.
If certain practices weren’t condemned or considered capital crimes against society prior to Israel becoming a nation, is this a logical and true picture of how some things should be understood under the New Covenant, wherein we claim we are not “under the Law” as far as our relationship with God is concerned?
Some have concluded that 1Corinthians 7:1-3 condemns gay marriages. What does the scripture say?
“Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband” (1 Corinthians 7:1-3; KJV).
Clearly, this scripture forbids involving oneself in fornication (pornea; G4202). Paul mentions and condemns the practice of fornication. He says in verse-1 “it is good for a man not to touch (haptomai – G680) a woman.” The word has to do with taking a woman for one’s wife (cp. Genesis 20:4, 6, 11; Proverbs 6:29), and his advice concerns a certain distress at Corinth, which Paul doesn’t describe (1Corinthians 7:26). In other words, due to the present distress, it is good not to marry.
According to the argument, Paul infers gay marriages are fornication, because his advice to the Corinthians is gender specific. Notice,
…let every man have his own wife (G1135; gune; i.e. a woman, gender specific), and let every woman have her own husband (G435; aner i.e. a male, gender specific). Let the husband (aner, male, gender specific) render unto the wife (gune; i.e. female, gender specific) due benevolence: and likewise, also the wife (gune; i.e. female, gender specific) unto the husband (aner, male, gender specific).
According to the argument, it is obvious Paul means, to avoid pornea (G4202) or fornication (for those who haven’t been called to the single life—cp. Matthew 19:10-12), one must marry. Moreover, such a marriage is defined as between a male and a female. Paul used words that are gender specific in describing such a union. We may conclude from this that a gay marriage, because it is not between a male and a female, is not in accordance with what scripture calls a marriage. Homosexuality, therefore, must be pornea (G4202) or fornication.
There are several problems with this argument. First, everything that Paul says, he says in the context of the Corinthians’ question, which is inferred in 1Corinthians 7:1. The question dealt with whether or not it was good to marry (verse-1) in light of the current distress (verse-26). If the Corinthians weren’t asking about homosexuality or gay marriages, would it be prudent to argue that Paul condemns the practice here? I don’t believe we can derive such teaching from this passage in Paul’s letter.
Secondly, the history of gay marriage is a recent or modern practice. Therefore, no matter what one may think of gay marriages, in my opinion, Paul could not have been inferring such marriages were fornication (pornea – G4202) from 1Corinthians 7:1-3. So, can gay marriages be Christian? The question infers a marriage ceremony, not simply two people deciding to live together as husband and wife, as the Patriarchs, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, did. Ceremonies are derived from social and national customs, whether religious or secular. The point is, such ceremonies aren’t described in the Bible. As far as being Christian is concerned, some denominations approve and some do not. So, the question gets a “yes and no” reply. Christians are not united on this issue. Nevertheless, the word of God, in as much as I can tell, does not condemn the practice.
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2 responses to “Can Gay Marriages Be Christian?”
To understand the mystery of the Gospel, disciples need to help one another mature in the faith and come to know Paul more fully so that … they will see Christ “face to face” and realize how and why Love makes what was previously forbidden possible!
Greetings Linda, and thank you for reading my studies and for expressing your opinion in comment. Lord bless you.
“…what was previously forbidden possible!” I take this to mean that the Lord blesses gay marriages. The problem with this is there is nothing in any of Paul’s writing that would indicate this is true. Moreover, on its face, it doesn’t seem logical. Would love condone murder, adultery or fornication or any other sin? While anyone is entitled to his or her opinion, I don’t see how your opinion about this subject has any support in the Bible. But, thank you, for the courage it takes to disagree and make that known.
ADDENDUM: Obviously, my opinion on the subject of homosexuality has changed. I no longer believe it is sinful behavior. It is never specifically labeled “sin” in the New Covenant text, so I believe it would be presumptuous of men to call it “sin”. The subject of homosexuality is far more complicated, than what we term an “inference” in 1Corinthians 7:1-3 could define.