The Levitical Priesthood v/s Melchizedek

In Hebrews 7:11-15 Paul compares the priesthood of Aaron, which arose out of the tribe of Levi, with that of Melchizedek, who wasn’t related to Abraham at all. Yet, the new priesthood, which would replace that of Aaron (cf. 1Samuel 2:35) would become the priesthood of the believing community of the Israel of God. How…

In Hebrews 7:11-15 Paul compares the priesthood of Aaron, which arose out of the tribe of Levi, with that of Melchizedek, who wasn’t related to Abraham at all. Yet, the new priesthood, which would replace that of Aaron (cf. 1Samuel 2:35) would become the priesthood of the believing community of the Israel of God. How does that happen, and why should it occur in the first place? These are the questions Paul seeks to answer in these next few verses.

The word Paul uses in Hebrews 7:11 for perfection is teleiosis (G5050) and it has more to do with completion or fulfillment than it has with being without fault.[1] Luke used the word in Luke 1:45 when Elizabeth told Mary that there would be a performance (G5050) of those things that were told her by the Lord. Therefore, what Paul means to say here is that the Law, which included the Levitical sacrificial system, was unable to bring anyone to perfection or maturity. No one under such a system could ever become complete or a whole person, as long as the only things the Levitical priesthood addressed were men’s sins. Sins are not the problem, but, rather, are the symptoms of the problem. Sins are the fruit but not the root of what is obviously wrong. The problem is rebellion, but the Law never addressed rebellion. Instead, it addressed only the acts of rebellion, the sins of men. A rebellious heart produces evil acts (sins), but the Levitical priesthood addressed only the acts themselves and never the hearts of men.

The fact that perfection (teleiosis – G5050 i.e. the act of completeness) could not come through the Levitical priesthood proved the system needed to be changed, but obviously repairing the priesthood of Aaron wouldn’t be enough, because how could imperfect priests (i.e. priests in whom was the rebellious seed) bring those they served to perfection or maturity (G5050)? Therefore, there was a need for an entirely different priesthood. Later, Paul argues that, if perfection (teleiosis — G5050) came through the Levitical priesthood, why would there be a need for a new priesthood after the order of Melchizedek (Hebrews 7:11; cf. 1Samuel 2:35; Psalm 110:4)? In all actuality, Paul argues in Hebrews 7:19 that the Law, which was received under the Levitical priesthood (Hebrews 7:11), made nothing perfect (G5048 – teleioo, the verb)!

So, what should this new priesthood look like, if, indeed, it is better than that of Aaron? First of all, if Paul’s argument is true that Jesus has become our High Priest (Hebrews 2:17; 3:1; 4:14-15), then the very least that could be said is that the new High Priest must come from the tribe of Judah and not Levi, because the Scriptures are very clear that Jesus arose out of the tribe of Judah. Nevertheless, Moses said nothing about any High Priest arising out of a different tribe of Israel (Hebrews 7:12-14). Therefore, although it is evident from the Scriptures that a change in the Law must be made (cf. 1Samuel 2:35; Hebrews 7:11-12), the Law, itself, is unable to show us how that should be done or even what a greater priesthood might look like.

What is far more striking, according to Paul, than the fact that the Messiah should arise out of the tribe of Judah is that he should also be a Priest, likened not to the tribe of Levi, or any other tribe for that matter. Rather, the Messiah would be a Priest similar to that of and of equal rank to Melchizedek, who was not only a Priest but also a King (Hebrews 7:14; Psalm 110:4; Genesis 14:17-20).

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[1] See Thayer’s Greek Definitions: the Greek word for perfection is teleiosis (G5050), and it means: a completing, a perfecting; meaning fulfillment, accomplishment; i.e. the event which verifies the promise, consummation, perfection;

2 responses to “The Levitical Priesthood v/s Melchizedek”

  1. So … what evidence is there in the Gospels that Jesus was a priest?

  2. Greetings Linda, apparently you either don’t accept the testimony of Hebrews or are one of those people who renounce Paul’s testimony as uninspired.

    Have you considered the idea that Jesus’ blood was shed for the remission of sins (Matthew 26:28; Luke 24:46-49)? How so? How is it applied? Who brings it before God to remit the sins of mankind? If the Levitical priesthood, then, no one’s sins are forgiven today, because the Old Covenant isn’t in force today, neither is there a priesthood or a Temple in Jerusalem. So, if Jesus’ blood remits the sins of mankind—all mankind, who brings that blood or who brought that blood before God in order that it could be so?

    Another point to consider is Jesus’ healing of the ten lepers in Luke 17:11-19. Jesus told them to show themselves to the priests, but on their way they were healed. One turned back and presented himself before Jesus. Afterward, Jesus didn’t send him to any priest, but told him to go his way. It seems to me, that Jesus considered himself to be the Priest of God, because he expected the other nine to show up but they didn’t. Only the Samaritan actually obeyed him.