According to Hebrews 10:19, because God doesn’t consider our sins in our New Covenant relationship with him (Hebrews 10:17), and because we no longer need an offering for our sins in order to enter his Presence (Hebrews 10:18), we have been given boldness (G3954) to enter the Holy of Holies. In other words, the mediation of Jesus’ blood (cf. Hebrews 10:12) assures us that God will not refuse our entry into his Presence.
Therefore, since God will not refuse our entry into his presence, Jesus has provided us access to the Holy of Holies through his flesh (Hebrews 10:20). Paul says this is a new and living way, but what does he mean in the context of Jesus’ redemptive work? First of all, the word translated consecrated or dedicated is egkainizo in the Greek (G1457) and is used only here and in Hebrews 9:18, where Paul says: “neither was the first covenant made without blood,” implying that the New Covenant was also ‘dedicated’ or ‘consecrated’ (G1457) with blood—it was dedicated with Jesus’ blood. This is what gives us our confidence (G3954) to enter the Holy of Holies.
Paul claims that Jesus’ flesh was equivalent to the veil in the Temple that separated the Holy Place from the Holy of Holies. In the context of Hebrews 10:19-20 the veil of the Temple was torn at the time when Jesus’ flesh was torn, when he offered his life’s blood to God, at the very moment that he placed his Spirit into the hands of his Father (Matthew 27:50-51; Mark 15:37-38; Luke 23:45-46).
We can also look upon this another way. We can say that God (John 1:1) became flesh and dwelt / tabernacled among us, full of grace and truth (John 1:14). We beheld his glory (through the veil of his flesh), i.e. the glory of the Only Begotten Son of the Father (John 1:14). In so doing, Jesus revealed who God is (John 1:18), and gave us an example to follow (John 13:15, 34). So, in a new and living way, in contrast to the Levitical priesthood’s need for sacrifices, we are enabled to enter God’s Presence. Thus, the rites of the Old Covenant, as practiced by the Levitical priesthood in the Holy Place (Hebrews 9:8-10), have been annulled in favor of this new and living way (Hebrews 10:20), whereby, as living sacrifices, following the example of our Savior, we offer ourselves to God (Romans 12:1-2).
Therefore, today, we are able to say we don’t know or perceive Jesus after the flesh or physically any more (2Corinthians 5:16), because his flesh (John 1:1, 14) pointed to that fact that God was in Christ, reconciling the world to himself (2Corinthians 5:19). This (i.e. Jesus’ flesh) is the veil that is taken away (2Corinthians 3:16), so that we, are enabled with unveiled face to behold him as in a glass, whereby we are changed into his image from glory to glory (2Corinthians 3:18)
So, in effect, Jesus was the Holy of Holies come out of heaven to dwell with men, and men were able to interact with God without the assistance of the Levitical priesthood. The veil, his flesh, couldn’t hide God’s character, which is the radiance of Jesus’ life (Hebrews 1:2-3). The veil of his flesh couldn’t hide what Jesus said and did among men, during his three and a half years on this earth (John 1:18). Therefore, when the veil was severed (viz. when Jesus died – Mark 15:37-38) the flesh was taken away. When he rose from the dead, we were able to see beyond the veil and understand that it was God who came to dwell with us. He is that kind of God, not a god who is far, far away and has no real interest in man. Rather, our God loves us and is willing to become man and dwell with us in order to make a firm and lasting covenant with us, thus, giving us eternal life.
4 responses to “The New and Living Way”
God has never seen anyone
Greetings Ibrahim, and welcome to my blog studies. Lord bless you.
Am I correct in deriving from your name that you are Jewish? I have fond memories of discussing the word of God with a Jew from Texas whose name was Howie. We never met, but I would have liked to have met him, but these things are more than ten years ago.
“God has never seen anyone”??? Is that a typo? Perhaps, you meant to say no one has ever seen God. If not a typo, what do you do with Scriptures like Genesis 1:31; 6:5 and 21:19?
The 33:20 because the man does not see me and live
Then you are saying your first comment was a typo. It is not “God has never seen anyone,” but man has never seen God.
How then do you understand Exodus 24:9-10 and Isaiah 6:5?