I’m winding down my study of the eschatology of both of Paul’s epistles to the Thessalonian believers. I intended to be here in 1Thessalonians 4 & 5 last, because I wanted to both discover whether or not Paul’s epistles were about one eschatology. That is, was he speaking of the judgment of the Jewish nation in 70 AD in part of those epistles and our modern era and our future in other parts of those epistles. I believe he spoke of one persecution, one resurrection, one coming of Christ to reward the saints and to judge the evil doers, and I believe everything we read and considered pointed to one eschatology, one end of age event and that was the destruction of the Jewish nation, including its capital, Jerusalem, and its Temple. Thus, the Old Covenant came to an end in 70 AD, and at the same time the New Covenant was established with the disciples of Jesus, demonstrating that he dealt with the world only through the Church. The age of when God dealt with the world through the Jewish nation had come to an abrupt end.
For nearly 2000 years the Jews wandered throughout the nations of this world, not having a nation of their own, demonstrating that they were judged by God and endured his terrible wrath. Many Christians today, believe the forming of the Jewish nation in 1947 pointed to the beginning of a fresh hope that the coming of Christ was near. Yet, not only had the hundreds of past predictions of the coming of Christ failed, exposing the futurist doctrine as a false hope, and its perpetrators false prophets, the creation of Israel in 1947 was a march to nowhere, as far as the coming of Christ is concerned. What difference could it possibly make, if they rebuild their Temple? The Old Covenant came to an end in 70 AD. How would that force God to deal with the world through the Jews once more? Although the Lord has in the past used unbelievers to judge and discipline his people, when has he ever used a bunch of atheists, agnostics and unbelievers to do anything to promote his will for the world? There was no Moses in 1947, no Zerubbabel or Ezra. What proof exists to demonstrate that the creation of Israel in 1947 was anything more than the Jews retaking their old homeland in an effort to provide a safe haven for their people?
Notice what Paul says in 1Thessalonians chapter five with a special consideration of the pronouns:
“But of the times and the seasons, brethren, you have no need that I write unto you. For you know perfectly that the day of the Lord comes as a thief in the night. For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape. But you, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief. You are all the children of light, and the children of the day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness. Therefore let us not sleep, as do others; but let us watch and be sober. For they that sleep, sleep in the night; and they that be drunken are drunken in the night. But let us, who are of the day, be sober, putting on the breastplate of faith and love; and for an helmet, the hope of salvation. For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ, Who died for us, that, whether we wake or sleep, we should live together with him” (1Thessalonians 5:1-10)
Notice who has knowledge of the times and who does not. The disciples of Jesus have no need to be reminded how the day of the Lord comes. Nevertheless, those upon whom the wrath of God comes, **always** need to be reminded that the coming of the Lord in the day of judgment and with wrath upon the evil doers is an event that comes like a thief, like the birth pains of a woman. In times past nearly no one had ever heeded the warnings of the men of God that judgment, the Lord’s wrath was about to come upon the disobedient children.
Notice who’s in darkness and who is in the light. Were the prophets of the Lord in times past ever in darkness, or did they know perfectly well that the time of God’s judgment was about to come? What sort of folks were **always** in darkness in that they are called the children of darkness? Wasn’t it the folks the Lord was about to judge? Who is it in the text above who has faith or trusts in Jesus? Who looks to be saved, i.e. from the coming wrath? Who had the Lord appointed to be taken by his wrath, was it the believers in Thessalonica (the children of light) or their persecutors (the children of darkness)? Who is promised eternal life—“whether we wake or sleep (die), we should live together with him!” (verse 10)?
Who has endured the wrath of God from 70 AD to this very day? Why would any believer in Jesus think that he would one day reverse his judgment and again choose the Jews (over the Church) to once again deal with the unbelieving nations? Does anyone of us really believe the Jews are believers? Why would we think the Lord would change the world through a nation of atheists, agnostics and unbelievers? Where is the precedent in the word of God for such a thing? God has not appointed us to wrath (to set us aside in favor of unbelievers) he has appointed unbelievers to bear his wrath.
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14 responses to “God Has Not Appointed Us to Wrath”
“God has not appointed us to wrath (to set us aside in favor of unbelievers) he has appointed unbelievers to bear his wrath.”
nice take down of the common Christian claims of free will.
Do you care to explain how my statement “takes(s) down” free will?
if god appoints “to fix or set officially” (merriam webster) someone to something, then they don’t have a choice.
You might want to use another word.
Thank you for your response. However, and using your quote from Webster, God has not appointed (fixed or officially set) believer for the wrath which was to come in the first century AD, which was the judgment of Christ upon Jerusalem and the Temple. Many Jews were slain, starved in the seige or were later enslaved. Nevertheless, Jesus put in a disclaimer in the prophecy. In Luke 12:42-46 (speaking of his coming judgment) the wise servant was to watch, but if he began to mistreat his brethren, the Lord would appoint him his reward with the unbelievers. Nevertheless, the judgment was meant for unbelievers, not believers. Hope this clarifies, and thank you for reading and for your comment.
Eddie, you claimed that this god has appointed the non-believer for wrath and now you try to move the goalposts by adding that nonsense about the first century. “Who has endured the wrath of God from 70 AD to this very day? Why would any believer in Jesus think that he would one day reverse his judgment and again choose the Jews (over the Church) to once again deal with the unbelieving nations? Does anyone of us really believe the Jews are believers? Why would we think the Lord would change the world through a nation of atheists, agnostics and unbelievers? Where is the precedent in the word of God for such a thing? God has not appointed us to wrath (to set us aside in favor of unbelievers) he has appointed unbelievers to bear his wrath.”
try again.