Failure in Casting Out the Demon

In the context of Jesus and his disciples being in Jerusalem, the phrase “when he came into the house” could only mean: when he came into the Temple (the House of God). Therefore, when Jesus came to his disciples (Mark 9:14), after coming down from the mount (Luke 9:37) he was in Jerusalem, but outside…

In the context of Jesus and his disciples being in Jerusalem, the phrase “when he came into the house” could only mean: when he came into the Temple (the House of God). Therefore, when Jesus came to his disciples (Mark 9:14), after coming down from the mount (Luke 9:37) he was in Jerusalem, but outside the Temple. It was inside the Temple complex or in the House that Jesus’ disciples asked him why they couldn’t cast the evil spirit out of the young boy (Mark 9:28). After all, hadn’t Jesus given them the power to cast out evil spirits (cp. Mark 6:7)? Matthew tells us that Jesus had given them authority over evil spirits to cast them out and to heal all manner of sicknesses and diseases (Matthew 10:1). Moreover, Luke records that their authority was over **all** demons and to cure diseases (Luke 9:1). Therefore, the disciples’ question was a legitimate one. If Jesus had given them authority over **all** demons, why were they unable to cast out **this** demon from the young boy (Mark 9:28)?

There is a problem in the content of what is supposed to be Jesus’ response at Mark 9:29, which reads:

And he said unto them, “This kind can come forth by nothing, but by prayer and fasting.”

Moreover, its parallel verse in Matthew 17:21 is omitted entirely in some early texts, and Matthew’s reason for the Apostles’ failure is stated as unbelief, which would agree with Mark’s record of the Apostles’ lack of prayer. The problem at Mark 9:29 is with the words, and fasting. They aren’t in two of the most important ancient manuscripts: Codex Vaticanus or Codex Ephraemi, and are clearly a later addition meant to explain the Apostles’ failure.

This reasoning is logical and true, because Jesus was asked earlier why both the disciples of John and the Pharisees fasted but Jesus’ disciples did not fast, and Jesus’ answered: it wasn’t proper for the children of the bridegroom to fast, while they were with him. In other words, fasting was done, because one mourns over something. If the Messiah was with the Apostles, why would they mourn? If fasting is an expression of sorrow, why would Jesus use it here as an expression of self-discipline? Jesus taught his disciples to trust in him, not to exercise self-discipline. The one looks to the Lord for its strength, while the other looks to the flesh. Fasting simply doesn’t make sense here.

Furthermore, we know Jesus prayed often, but when did he fast? He certainly didn’t fast the day prior to healing the young boy, nor did he in the week prior to that, because it was the celebration of the Feast of Tabernacles. It is simply impossible to both celebrate and mourn at the same time. So, if this particular demon comes out **only** by prayer and fasting, when did Jesus fast? He prayed, certainly, but when did he fast? Clearly, the phrase and fasting is a later addition made by someone completely ignorant of scripture and how the word of God fits together. So, it seems that the Apostles fell victim of the scribes’ conspiracy (Mark 9:16), namely, to cause Jesus’ disciples to try to cast out the spirit in an effort to prove themselves the servants of God. What they should have done was pray to God, asking him to permit them to glorify him by casting out the demon (Mark 9:29).