As Jesus discussed differing worldviews of who the Messiah is with the Jewish authorities, he mentioned that both he and the Father are one (John 10:30). The Jewish authorities correctly understood Jesus’ words to mean he was saying God was his own Father in a unique way, not in the sense in which they claimed God as their Father (John 8:41). They, therefore, believing they had heard what they needed to destroy Jesus, they took up stones to cast at him and kill him (John 10:31), because they took his words as blasphemous, and blasphemy was a sin punishable with death by stoning (Leviticus 24:10-16).
While the Jewish authorities looked and reached for the stones to cast at him, Jesus recalled to their attention that he had done many good works among them, which were miracles his Father had done through him. Then, he asked for which of these miracles did they wish to slay him (John 10:32). One can’t help but note the incongruity of the event. If God did miracles through Jesus, obviously God approved of what Jesus said and did. By wishing to stone Jesus, they publicly announced their desire to destroy the Lord’s Messenger, and this they were doing, because they wished to honor the name of God, which they were claiming Jesus blasphemed!
The authorities responded by saying they weren’t killing him for the good works they agreed he did. Rather, they were about to slay him for blaspheming the name of God, by saying that he, a mere man, was God (John 10:33). Thus, right doctrine took precedence over what they couldn’t otherwise deny that they knew was of God (cp. John 3:1-2).
In response to their charge of blasphemy, Jesus asked them if it wasn’t written in their Law that God actually called them gods, who were mere men? And, if this were true (and the scripture cannot be contradicted; John 10:34-35), why did they call Jesus a blasphemer, vis-à-vis the very one whom the Father had set apart and sent into the world? Am I a blasphemer, because I claimed I am the Son of God, vis-à-vis the Messiah (John 10:36)?
At this point some conclude, because Jesus said he was the Son of God and not actually God, that either he was recanting his claim or they misunderstood what he was saying. But, is this true? Where does it say in the word of God that men are gods? The Lord refers to men as gods in Psalm 82. There God stands in the congregation of the rulers, the mighty gods, and asks how long they will be so unjust that they do not defend the poor and the fatherless against the wicked (Psalm 82:1-4). Because they do such things the whole course of world events are in darkness and in chaos (Psalm 82:5). Then God says: “You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High, but you will die (judgment cp. Psalm 82:1) as mere men” (Psalm 82:6-7). The Psalm then concludes in verse-8 with “Arise, O God, judge the earth, for you shall inherit all nations.”
In the context of Jesus claim to being Messiah (John 10:36), is that the Psalmist calls for **God** to arise and judge the earth, because he, vis-à-vis **God** will inherit all nations! The two big questions behind Psalm 82:8, then, are: to whom has the Lord committed all judgment, and who will inherit all nations? Jesus told the Jewish authorities that the Father as committed all judgment to him, the Messiah (John 5:22). To answer the second question, we need to read Psalm 2.
Psalm 2 begins with Israel and all nations coming against the Messiah (Psalm 2:1-3), something the disciples claimed referred to what the Jewish authorities had done to Jesus (Acts 4:25-27). Then the Lord says he will laugh at them from heaven (Psalm 2:4), saying “I have set my King on my holy hill, Zion.” And, he declares: “You are my Son, this day have I begotten you. Ask of Me, and I shall give the nations for your inheritance; and the uttermost parts of the earth for your possession” (Psalm 2:6-8).
Therefore, when the Psalmist calls for God to arise and judge the earth, for he will inherit all nations, the Psalmist is referring to God, the Messiah, the Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lord. In other words, Messiah, the Christ, is Deity (God), and Son of God (John 10:36) equals God (Psalm 82:8).
Then Jesus offered the only proof necessary that would support his claim to be the Messiah. If he had not done the works, vis-à-vis the miracles, of God, then don’t believe him. However, if it is true that he does the works of God (miracles) then, although you find it difficult to change your worldview and believe me, believe me for the very sake of the miracles that can be done only by God, himself, or in other words “I am in the Father and the Father is in me” (John 10:37-38).
Nevertheless, the Jewish authorities refused to believe and tried to seize him. However, he escaped out of their hand (John 10:39) and went on the other side of the Jordan River and stayed there, where John the Baptizer began his ministry. Many folks came to him, there, and received him as their Messiah, saying that everything John had said about Jesus was true (John 10:40-42).
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6 responses to “Why Would You Stone the Messiah?”
While mankind is male and female, God is neither. God is God, not a Greek mythical figure. Male and female in mankind images God, not male and female in the animal kingdom who were created separately, but male and female in mankind, where the female came out of the male—that reflects the Godhead (cp. John 16:27).
Concerning sin, sin was never the problem between God and mankind. Rebellion, keeping God out of our affairs—that’s the problem. God will encourage us and correct us, if we walk with him, so sin is not a problem. He’ll bring us through all that. He can’t if we reject him—which is rebellion. Preachers who devote themselves to stomping out sin in their church fellowships are nothing more than Pharisees, who reject the work of God in the lives of his children, believing they can see and believe God needs their help. As long as folks don’t reject Christ/God, he’ll help them overcome the problems/sins in their lives. Only rebellion stops that from happening.
In John 3:29 the Baptist is speaking, and he rejoiced to hear the voice of Jesus (the bridegroom). The bride was Israel, and is the Church in the New Covenant (composed of repentant Israel and repentant gentiles). I completely reject your presumption that Jesus was a woman, literally or figuratively. There is no support in scripture for that idea.